Problem

Should "Easter" be "Passover"?

Acts 12:4 - And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Why does the King James Bible have the word Easter which is known as a pagan holiday instead of Passover or Unleavened bread which is a Jewish feast?

Does it mean the King James Bible has an error by mistranslating this word?


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The answer to this question is slightly simple and can be found in the text. The Greek word here is the word pascha. This word is used twenty-nine times in the New Testament. It is rendered "passover" twenty-eight times. In all the times that passover is mentioned it is never refering to the days of unleaved bread. It is refering to the day of passover. After the passover according to Exodus 12:13-14, we find that seven days shall be fulfilled in which the Jews shall eat unleaved bread. Thus the days of unleavened bread were after passover. It was during this seven day span of the holiday that Peter was arrested (v.3). The passover and days of unleaved bread were mid April, fluctating upon the Jewish calendar. After these days was the pagan festival "Ishtar." This holiday was held at the end of April. Now, in our passage we find a pagan ruler. Which Holiday do you think this pagan is more interested in? A pagan holiday or a religious one? Therefore we see that our text is perfectly preserved in the AV 1611 King James Bible.

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One other point to keep in mind when dealing with the Gr. word 'pascha', the Greek word is used by the Greek Orthodox church for their word 'Easter'.
So, the Gr. word can be mean both 'passover' and 'Easter' Also, the modern KJ21 translates the word as 'Easter' so the KJB isn't the only English translation that has it.

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